My question involves collection proceedings in the State of: Missouri
Upon entering out marriage my husband and I own two separate vehicles, two separate properties. His name is not on my vehicle's title and on his vehicle's title it has his name and then TOD, then my name. In 2014 my husband wanted to take out a loan against his vehicle in order to get money to pay off credit cards and medical bills (supposely for both of us but the majority of the money was used for his personal bills) This loan could not be approved unless I cosigned for it. So I cosigned for it and I am pretty sure he received around $9,000. Payments to this loan have been made from our joint checking account. I filed for divorce in November 2015 and we are currently going through litigation. We are legally still married. My soon to be ex decided he wanted to purchased a new vehicle and asked for my written consent stating I understood he would be responsible for the new car loan he was supposedly able to acquire and that I understood the new car would be his sole property. However I refused to consent and informed my attorney and sought his guidance on this. However, without my consent or a court order my soon to be ex purchased a new vehicle. Can he legally do this? Is his old vehicle legally considered partially mine? Can he legally trade in his car and purchase a new one given the circumstances without my consent?
Upon entering out marriage my husband and I own two separate vehicles, two separate properties. His name is not on my vehicle's title and on his vehicle's title it has his name and then TOD, then my name. In 2014 my husband wanted to take out a loan against his vehicle in order to get money to pay off credit cards and medical bills (supposely for both of us but the majority of the money was used for his personal bills) This loan could not be approved unless I cosigned for it. So I cosigned for it and I am pretty sure he received around $9,000. Payments to this loan have been made from our joint checking account. I filed for divorce in November 2015 and we are currently going through litigation. We are legally still married. My soon to be ex decided he wanted to purchased a new vehicle and asked for my written consent stating I understood he would be responsible for the new car loan he was supposedly able to acquire and that I understood the new car would be his sole property. However I refused to consent and informed my attorney and sought his guidance on this. However, without my consent or a court order my soon to be ex purchased a new vehicle. Can he legally do this? Is his old vehicle legally considered partially mine? Can he legally trade in his car and purchase a new one given the circumstances without my consent?
Cosigners: Co Signed on Loan Soon to Be Ex Husband Took Out Against His Vehicle
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