How is Property Tax Constitutional

We all know the U.S. Constitution is the Supreme law of the land and all states are bound by it, so this isn't JUST a federal matter, the Constitution applies to everyone and when you look at the taxing clauses of the Constitution, it clearly says direct taxes are forbidden, not ONCE, but TWICE. How are the states directly taxing us in violation of the supreme law of the land? Are these 2 clauses only directed at the federal government? I know the first one was directed towards the federal government for a time of emergency funds for a war, etc. But the second one in article I, section 9, clause 4, seems to address both the states and the federal govt. I doubt the founding fathers would accept any form of direct taxation on the people.

ARTICLE I, SECTION 2, CLAUSE 3:

Representatives and direct Taxes shall be apportioned among the several States which may be included within this Union, according to their respective Numbers, which shall be determined by adding to the whole Number of free Persons, including those bound to Service for a Term of Years, and excluding Indians not taxed, three fifths of all other Persons.

AS WELL:

ARTICLE I, SECTION 9, CLAUSE 4:

No Capitation, or other direct, Tax shall be laid, unless in Proportion to the Census or enumeration herein before directed to be taken.


So unless the government is somehow bypassing this direct taxing clause through some sleight of hand tricks and classifying our property as some type of commercial or business property and treating it as an 'indirect tax', I dont understand how this can be constitutional? Maybe it has to do with the 'voluntary' action of us recording the property with the county when there is no LAW that we have to and therefore it becomes an 'indirect tax'? Something is not right.

How is Property Tax Constitutional