My question involves a marriage in the state of: Illinois
My soon to be ex (N) moved out of state across the country a few months ago to get back with her ex. We currently own a home together, which is under contract and were closing on in 3 days. The proceeds are being divided 50/50, so there are no questions there. We have not yet filed for divorce. From my point of view, the divorce will be uncontested, since we own no property together, have no joint accounts, credit cards or debt, and neither of us want any support since we both work and make around the same salary. She has a son who is 19 (previous marriage) and I have a daughter, so no visitation would be in the agreement.
I am taking my portion of the proceeds and using it to buy a home for myself and my daughter. I haven't said anything to N about this purchase, but it is my understanding that because I am purchasing this home (in my name only) during the course of the marriage, that it is considered marital property. Is it possible that N could decide to stake a claim to 50% of this home's value as well, even though I used my half of the proceeds from the home sale to purchase it and she can use hers for whatever she wants to? What are the possible scenarios here?
My soon to be ex (N) moved out of state across the country a few months ago to get back with her ex. We currently own a home together, which is under contract and were closing on in 3 days. The proceeds are being divided 50/50, so there are no questions there. We have not yet filed for divorce. From my point of view, the divorce will be uncontested, since we own no property together, have no joint accounts, credit cards or debt, and neither of us want any support since we both work and make around the same salary. She has a son who is 19 (previous marriage) and I have a daughter, so no visitation would be in the agreement.
I am taking my portion of the proceeds and using it to buy a home for myself and my daughter. I haven't said anything to N about this purchase, but it is my understanding that because I am purchasing this home (in my name only) during the course of the marriage, that it is considered marital property. Is it possible that N could decide to stake a claim to 50% of this home's value as well, even though I used my half of the proceeds from the home sale to purchase it and she can use hers for whatever she wants to? What are the possible scenarios here?
Property Division: What Happens with a Home That I Purchase Myself Before a Divorce
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