My question involves real estate located in the State of: UK
listed building and surronded fields were sold to what was thought to be a family and for fields to be used for their horses. no mention of big development to be made on the land and property would not have been sold to the people invoilce had that been the case - if planning is accepted then likely to profit substantially -
can the former property / land owner have a claim?
listed building and surronded fields were sold to what was thought to be a family and for fields to be used for their horses. no mention of big development to be made on the land and property would not have been sold to the people invoilce had that been the case - if planning is accepted then likely to profit substantially -
can the former property / land owner have a claim?
Seller Disclosure: Real Estate Purchased Under Misrepresentation
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