My question involves personal property located in the State of: Ohio:
If you don't pay your "property tax/rent" to the government, they will eventually evict you, or make a full loss of your investment. When leasers don't pay the rent to the landlords, they may properly may be evicted by due process of law; albeit, the renters don't own the properties themselves anyways. So how is it any different, when you are residing on an personally invested property, or invested a full some of money in other personal properties, that you can be evicted or lose rights to those properties that are not kept up in to date in property taxation? As long as you are paying anyone to keep your residence, property investments, etc. intact, you don't truly own "your properties".
Before property tax became into effect, they truly owned their properties, ie. no one could seize their fully paid for properties from lack of any further payments. They could also build whatever they wanted or needed without needing of permits (further payments). They just bought, claimed, and used their own properties as they seemed proper. That is true freedom, just ownership of lands, and being unmolested from oppression by a "big brother".
The 5th Amendment states:
“No person shall be … deprived of life, liberty, or property, without due process of law; nor shall private property be taken for public use, without just compensation.”
If people never truly own their own property in the first place because of paying of property tax/rent, then aren't they already deprived of property in the first place as well?
I'm asking because an old widow lady that I knew. She lost her husband who made all of the income. He had the property paid in full and kept up on property taxes when he lived. Then when he died, she was on a very limited income, and ended up not being able to afford the property taxes within her budget. She lost the property where she lived for fifty-three years and ended up going into a HUD apartment. That's straight up oppression by the elite, deprivation of property, and abuse of powers. They never even owned their own property in reality, even though they had the deed.
Should there be lobbying, petitioning, and protesting for the abolition of property taxes by We the People? To at least protect the elderly from oppression by the government and deprivation of lands? How can there be deprivation of land without due process of law, when they never own the land in the first place? Perhaps a road tax for those driving would be more efficient for the repairs and buildings of the roads, instead of property tax going to it.
If you don't pay your "property tax/rent" to the government, they will eventually evict you, or make a full loss of your investment. When leasers don't pay the rent to the landlords, they may properly may be evicted by due process of law; albeit, the renters don't own the properties themselves anyways. So how is it any different, when you are residing on an personally invested property, or invested a full some of money in other personal properties, that you can be evicted or lose rights to those properties that are not kept up in to date in property taxation? As long as you are paying anyone to keep your residence, property investments, etc. intact, you don't truly own "your properties".
Before property tax became into effect, they truly owned their properties, ie. no one could seize their fully paid for properties from lack of any further payments. They could also build whatever they wanted or needed without needing of permits (further payments). They just bought, claimed, and used their own properties as they seemed proper. That is true freedom, just ownership of lands, and being unmolested from oppression by a "big brother".
The 5th Amendment states:
“No person shall be … deprived of life, liberty, or property, without due process of law; nor shall private property be taken for public use, without just compensation.”
If people never truly own their own property in the first place because of paying of property tax/rent, then aren't they already deprived of property in the first place as well?
I'm asking because an old widow lady that I knew. She lost her husband who made all of the income. He had the property paid in full and kept up on property taxes when he lived. Then when he died, she was on a very limited income, and ended up not being able to afford the property taxes within her budget. She lost the property where she lived for fifty-three years and ended up going into a HUD apartment. That's straight up oppression by the elite, deprivation of property, and abuse of powers. They never even owned their own property in reality, even though they had the deed.
Should there be lobbying, petitioning, and protesting for the abolition of property taxes by We the People? To at least protect the elderly from oppression by the government and deprivation of lands? How can there be deprivation of land without due process of law, when they never own the land in the first place? Perhaps a road tax for those driving would be more efficient for the repairs and buildings of the roads, instead of property tax going to it.
Ownership Rights: How Does Anyone Truly Own Property, when Everyone in the U.S.A. Has to Pay Rent/Tax
Aucun commentaire:
Enregistrer un commentaire