My question involves insurance law for the state of: TN
Hello,
My question involves a random drug screening process instituted by my former practitioner. I agree with random drug screening and support it in principle. This practice had never performed a random drug screen for me before and I was told (only when I entered the examination room) that the procedure was part of a new practice policy and promptly handed a cup and given directions. They were doing this for all of their patients, I was told. Two weeks later I received a bill from the lab that performed the drug screen with a $457 price tag attached. This seems exorbitant to me. I spoke with the insurance company and my plan does not include assistance for drug screens. I called the billing departments at the lab and the medical office and the consensus is: I am responsible for payment.
With all of that being said, is there a legal procedure the medical practice should have followed with regards to informing their patients that a random drug screen may have to be performed? What about consent forms? When I called the medical office they admitted there were no new policy forms or consent forms relating to the new policy. Instead, the justification was, "It's common".
I understand that prior knowledge of a drug screen does little to catch people, but shouldn't I have had a heads-up that I MAY be required to submit my urine for testing at a crazy-expensive lab so I could check my insurance policy? Or at least consent to the new policy? I have since found a new doctor and they tell their patients right away that they will be submitting to drug screens consistently and the terms and conditions are available to read an consent to.
Obviously, I would like to get out of paying this outrageous pee-bill but if I am responsible and simply done a disservice by my practice, fine. I guess I have to pay. But I feel like the office misstepped somehow. I would be grateful if anyone could shed light on this for me. Thank you.
Hello,
My question involves a random drug screening process instituted by my former practitioner. I agree with random drug screening and support it in principle. This practice had never performed a random drug screen for me before and I was told (only when I entered the examination room) that the procedure was part of a new practice policy and promptly handed a cup and given directions. They were doing this for all of their patients, I was told. Two weeks later I received a bill from the lab that performed the drug screen with a $457 price tag attached. This seems exorbitant to me. I spoke with the insurance company and my plan does not include assistance for drug screens. I called the billing departments at the lab and the medical office and the consensus is: I am responsible for payment.
With all of that being said, is there a legal procedure the medical practice should have followed with regards to informing their patients that a random drug screen may have to be performed? What about consent forms? When I called the medical office they admitted there were no new policy forms or consent forms relating to the new policy. Instead, the justification was, "It's common".
I understand that prior knowledge of a drug screen does little to catch people, but shouldn't I have had a heads-up that I MAY be required to submit my urine for testing at a crazy-expensive lab so I could check my insurance policy? Or at least consent to the new policy? I have since found a new doctor and they tell their patients right away that they will be submitting to drug screens consistently and the terms and conditions are available to read an consent to.
Obviously, I would like to get out of paying this outrageous pee-bill but if I am responsible and simply done a disservice by my practice, fine. I guess I have to pay. But I feel like the office misstepped somehow. I would be grateful if anyone could shed light on this for me. Thank you.
Health Insurance: Full Disclosure Before Drug Screen
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