My question involves landlord-tenant law in the State of: Florida
Is there any legal technicality that would prevent a proper, signed lease with a rent rate of $0 per month from being accepted by a court? I am just unsure if there is any kind of precedent that would keep it from being actuated if no money is exchanged.
This is extremely important to know this morning, if anyone can answer as soon as possible, I am very appreciative!
Is there any legal technicality that would prevent a proper, signed lease with a rent rate of $0 per month from being accepted by a court? I am just unsure if there is any kind of precedent that would keep it from being actuated if no money is exchanged.
This is extremely important to know this morning, if anyone can answer as soon as possible, I am very appreciative!
Modifying a Lease: Is a Lease with Rent of $0 Per Month Still Effective in Florida Need to Know Asap
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