My question involves real estate located in the State of: WI
My dad and I are looking at buying a house together and we found a house for sale where they were having an Open House. The realtor there explained that the property boundaries of it actually extend into the neighbor's yard and even includes their driveway! He said that the current owners have given the neighbors permission to use that part of their property. If my dad and I were to buy that house, I'm concerned that we could actually be liable for any accidents that happen in the neighbor's yard or driveway. If someone were to fall down and hurt themselves in the neighbor's yard or driveway, wouldn't we be liable the same as if they were to have gotten hurt in our yard?
FWIW, I would be in favor of giving the neighbor the option of purchasing that part of the property from us. It would eliminate the possible liability and could lower our property taxes. My dad says he wouldn't want to bother with any of that and would rather just leave it as is. So, who's right? Could we be sued (successfully) by our neighbor if someone there got hurt in the part of "their" property that we would technically own?
My dad and I are looking at buying a house together and we found a house for sale where they were having an Open House. The realtor there explained that the property boundaries of it actually extend into the neighbor's yard and even includes their driveway! He said that the current owners have given the neighbors permission to use that part of their property. If my dad and I were to buy that house, I'm concerned that we could actually be liable for any accidents that happen in the neighbor's yard or driveway. If someone were to fall down and hurt themselves in the neighbor's yard or driveway, wouldn't we be liable the same as if they were to have gotten hurt in our yard?
FWIW, I would be in favor of giving the neighbor the option of purchasing that part of the property from us. It would eliminate the possible liability and could lower our property taxes. My dad says he wouldn't want to bother with any of that and would rather just leave it as is. So, who's right? Could we be sued (successfully) by our neighbor if someone there got hurt in the part of "their" property that we would technically own?
Use and Enforcement: Liability Issues When a Neighbor Uses a Portion of Your Land
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