mercredi 25 avril 2018

Grandparents and Third Parties: How to Obtain Primary Custody of My Late Significant Other's Child

My question involves a child custody case from the State of: Commonwealth of Virginia

This is quite a long, mess of a custody battle, but I will do my best to keep it as simple and short as possible.

I currently have temp sole custody of my late significant other's son; father passed away in October of 2017, he is 11 years old, and has been in our primary care since his biological mother's incarceration during the ages of 3 and 4 years old. Prior to her incarceration, without any court order established, she had been the primary care giver for the first 3 years of his life, with my late SO having him two days a week on average. Although, extenuating circumstances at times, including law trouble & substance abuse, occurred in which the father (my late SO) was awarded temporary emergency custody when his child was 2 years old, due to child neglect and endangerment. Child was removed again in 2012 due to his complaints of domestic violence, neglect, and unfit environment. This began the Divorce and Custody battle which resulted in the father being awarded joint primary physical custody with bio mom awarded weekend parenting time.

Fast forward to the present, in April 2017, our oldest son requested to be kept away and protected from his biological mother whom he had weekend visits with the majority of his life, due to the familiar on going neglect and other detrimental behaviors and environmental conditions, such as domestic violence and sporadic physical abuse, as well as the unfit living conditions. Once his father passed, I received emergency temp custody of him for fear bio mom may attempt to uproot his life. She requested & was awarded court ordered therapy between herself and their son, with the courts intent being to mend the relationship in turmoil for the good of the child's mental and emotional well being.

The therapy has helped the child let go of some anger and pain he has held onto, and allowed him to accept his love for her as his bio mother, yet his position on keeping his life and environment the same, at his established residence with me, his legal guardian & primary mother-figure (he calls me mom), has not changed. His desire is to be able to see her when he would like, along with at family holiday events, but without her having the control to force him into anything, specifically, the authority to make drastic changes to his life such as his residence with me and my role as his legal guardian and primary caregiver throughout his childhood. I believe his desires are very logical and reasonable for his age in this difficult situation. I fully support him and his desires in this. I feel it is important to maintain contact and continued support of his biological mother in hopes of genuine change of behavior within her, but I will always simultaneously protect him from any further harm or disappointment that could come from her, and I hope the court will give me the authority to do so. Let me also add, the bio mother is in arrears with child support in the thousands.

Anyway, I guess my question would be, now that I've given a brief background (yes, thats brief, believe it or not), how likely is it for the courts to allow me to maintain primary custody with the promise to keep the bio mother reasonably involved?


Grandparents and Third Parties: How to Obtain Primary Custody of My Late Significant Other's Child

Licensing: Copying Content from a Website to Translate and Republish

Hello,
I would like to copy a website from the US and translate it into French. To do this legally I want to buy the right to the owner.
Do I have to write a contract for this? Or the fact that we exchanged emails, I paid the owner and he sent me the website are enough to protect me against any legal issue in the future?
If I write contract, is a signature with Microsoft Paint enough or I have to send the document?


Licensing: Copying Content from a Website to Translate and Republish

Domestic Violence: Dismissal of a Criminal Charge vs. Acquittal After Trial

GC wife of 3/1/2 years. Prior to this I was married and living in the same house for 30 years with the same woman for 27 years, we both had our LTC's and negotiated our divorce while living together. No arrest record ever. Last year I contacted an attorney and told him I wanted a divorce, she was abusive and a danger. I held off after she physically restrained me admitting she was using my PTSD (Vietnam related) to provoke me. The truth was brutal, but I knew it was true, so I backed off. Big mistake.

Last month we went on vacation. After two days of needling I packed up and left. Forwarded her the plane ticket and told her I was going to my company reunion and not to come. Texted her I would bring the rental car by, rent any hotel, enjoy your vacation etc.

She beat me home by 4 days and hatched an abuse plot. Went to the local PD the night I got home and made a host of felonious accusations against me. Ok forward to 'dangerousness hearing' in District C. Judge wasn't buying it, I was released without bond with GPS supervision and a few other stipulations. My attorney is very sharp. I told him she is either going to admit to her spurious charges at the next hearing or I'm going to face my accuser in a full trial.

My attorney is filing a motion for discovery we're three weeks out. Now either the case gets dismissed outright or she's going to have to perjure herself under oath. I don't hate her, but I'd love to see her deported. As to motive I found out if a GC holder files an DV abuse charge and she files a I-360 and automatically gets her 10 year GC without my validation of the marriage. She living in my house and having a good old time and I'm paying for everything, including two lawyers...lol

The kernel of my question if the DA agrees to dismiss before trial does it carry an equal weight of being found not guilty at a trial ? If she caught perjuring herself do I have legal recourse ?

Sorry for the verbiage and thanks....


Domestic Violence: Dismissal of a Criminal Charge vs. Acquittal After Trial

Deed and Survey Do Not Match

My question involves real estate located in the State of: Virginia

A physical survey was done on my property*in 2015 and 2017. Monuments were found in 2015*fronting the road, but none were found in the rear of the lot.**Irons were set in 2015 for rear. In 2018, a developer is building a subdivision*rear of my lot. Their survey marks a difference of 5 feet on one point and 8 feet on another than what was marked in 2015 and 2017, this more recent survey claims to have found irons too at the rear of my lot. They also say that because of this, the lot shifts south 8 feet into the road, ignoring the irons that are at the edge of the road. Our legal description, found in our deed and historic deeds from at least 1946 (lot is from 1891), state our lot begins at the edge of the road, not in the road. There are no road easements found in our title search.*The original surveyor remeasured the lot and now agrees with the other surveyor, because that matches the other surveys. I was under the impression that a survey of my lot is supposed to be based on my deed, and if there is overlap between neighboring surveys*it*then goes to courts to settle.*I am confused that my deed and the surveys are different.*I have been reading that a physical is not in fact a boundary survey, is that true? A title claim has already been started. There is currently a silt fence near where I maintain the property line that has been there for a couple years I'm told., however I have only been at the property for a year and cannot prove if previous landowner maintained that portion of the lot. My left and right neighbors anecdotally agree with my property line and they have maintained their lots (shed) in the rear.

I actually think that the survey from 2015 and 2017 is correct as it matched my deed, even if that surveyor now says he was wrong.

1. In the scenario that the 2015 and 2017 survey is wrong and my lot IS in the middle of the road.
A. Who is a fault? the surveyor or the guy who sold it to me (builder)? The builder sold me the land based on the 2015 survey, so he was wronged as well
B. Since the city has effectively "taken" about 312Sq with a road and utility pole
C. Would I have a adverse passion claim, based on the 80 years of deeds and understanding of my lot being 125 feet from the road?.

2. In the scenario that the 2015 and 2017 survey is correct (plus at least 80 years of deed)
A. What do I do? I'm trying to talk to a lawyer in person.
B. The developer is planning on building a retaining wall at the property line. We have done work up there, planted trees. Can they just rip my trees out? How do I protect my land?
C. I have been given the impression that title insurance will just pay me damages instead of actually paying for a lawyer to fight for my land.


Deed and Survey Do Not Match

Loan Agreements: Lease Agreement Signed and Want to Cancel

My question involves a consumer law issue in the State of: Michigan

Hello, I have signed for a lease on a vehicle(24 Months) and am supposed to take delivery tomorrow. Due to work reasons, I will have to leave the country in a month for a couple of years and would like to cancel the lease. Legally, can i cancel the lease. Are there any repercussions due to this?

Thanks in advance.


Loan Agreements: Lease Agreement Signed and Want to Cancel

Termination: Utility Easement Never Recorded, Now $100k+ Damage

My question involves real estate located in the State of: California

We have a 6" city water main running more or less along the property line, between us and the neighbor, connecting our neighborhood with the highway behind us. It was a redundant main line for the entire neighborhood until it ruptured about a month ago, causing over $100K in flooding damage to the neighbor's house. With the City not cooperating, the neighbor has no choice but to file an inverse condemnation claim.

A substantial amount of dirt was displaced when it ruptured, so a sinkhole may exist on our side. Beyond that, physical damage to our property is unknown at this time.

Some research over the past month revealed that no easement was ever recorded with the county for the water main. The City wants to abandon the line in place and forget this ever happened. Up until a month ago, we intended to sell the house this year. Now, with all the question marks surrounding this problem, and the disclosures that will need to be made to potential sellers, we stand to lose a lot of money.

And yes, we're planning to hire a real estate attorney in the near future. I'm just curious what your first thoughts are having read this? Are we looking at an uphill battle? What would be fair and reasonable expectations on our part?


Termination: Utility Easement Never Recorded, Now $100k+ Damage

Contract Law: Non Compete Clause for Subcontractor of a Subcontractor

My question involves business law in the state of: California

I appreciate any thoughts or insights on this. Thank you ahead of time!

My question is includes four entities. I will break it down as: End User ("User"), Prime Contract holder ("Prime"), Subcontractor ("Sub"), and Subcontractor to the Subcontractor ("S2S"). These are all business entities. No Independent contractors.

The brief story is that the User brought an S2S in and asked for assistance before the contracts were set up and any work began. They suggested that the S2S go through the Prime's existing contract to start the work quicker. The Prime asked that the S2S go through their Sub. The S2S did. The Sub made the S2S sign an agreement with a non-compete clause in it and refers to a "client" in the contract language with no clear definition of "client." There is no reference to any additional levels of business or in the capacity of an S2S. To the S2S, the non-compete is for future business (within 1 year) with the Prime but not the User even though the work was ultimately done with the User.

My questions: Is the non-compete clause enforceable against both the Prime and the User or just the Prime? Does the fact that the User brought the S2S in first for discussions then referenced the contract path change any interpretation of good faith in acting according to the contract?

I believe this touches contract law and good faith / good intentions. I hope this is clear!


Contract Law: Non Compete Clause for Subcontractor of a Subcontractor